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Old February 16, 2011, 05:36   #38
Join Date: Mar 2008
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Originally Posted by Pete Mack View Post
I suspect you mean F_{n+1}, for this to make any sense at n=0...
But quite so, your pure integer paradigm is much better.
The standard def is F_1 = F_2 = 1, with F_0 = 0.. I double-checked before I posted. If you want damage reduction for 1 resist but not for 0 resists I think I got it right.

Did you know that F_n = round(\phi^n / \sqrt{5})? Your earlier comment made you sound like a \phi fanatic, so you might want to remember that. You can express \sqrt{5} in terms of \phi as well if that tickles your fancy.
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